cwalker2
Registered
Where are you getting the FBI and CDC information from?
Yes, the owner has a very small percentage of a gun being used against them, however that statistic only tells a small part of the story. A gun has a very high likelihood of causing harm, intentional or otherwise, to a person in the household. Some of this is simply because of proximity, and doesn't tell the whole story either. Stats are an interesting tool, often misused in the hands of the untrained. Sound familiar?
One of my research papers I wrote while working on my graduate degree was about firearms and defense. The FBI Uniform Crime report is a great place to start and is available to the public free of charge. Other more detailed reports are available for a nominal fee. The CDC data required a lot of sorting and analysis. It too is available to the public provided one has a reason to search it (associations and educational use) and pays a nominal fee. I also sourced U.S. justice department studies. All of these compiled to agree on the 0.2% use of firearm against owner. That alone does not say how the weapon came to be used against the owner either. there is no proof of causation - such as a bad guy disarming an owner. It could be owner shooting himself, bad guy stealing the weapon before the owner arrives on the scene ,or some other situation. I state it because one commonly held untruth is that if you have a gun it will most likely be used against you. Not only is it not likely, it is minimal.
It's true. A gun in the home generates proximity. Just as one has a higher probability of drowning if they have a swimming pool, a gun in the home means the possibility exists for failure.